/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
Why did the Allies blame Germany for the cause of WW1 when it seemed pretty obvious that Austria-Hungary and Serbia were the cause of starting WW1?
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How likely was it for people with advanced degrees (e.g., master's and PhD holders) to fight in WW2?
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How was a region as small as Brittany able to remain independent from Carolingian (and later French) control for so long?
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Did women during the 19th century in the US and the UK have the same dress clothes and restrictions? Were there any differences?
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Did the axis and allies leadership of ww2 directly communicate throughout the war with Europe in any way? How was that done? How did the Nazis broadcast their surrender?
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It is said by some that in Islamic history, slavery practiced during the 7th century is different (in a good way) from the contemporary slavery we now associate with torture, rape, murder and violence practiced largely against the black people in America. How true is this claim?
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